"Jeff Morris" jeffmo@NoSpam-sv-lokiDOTcom wrote in message ...

Why is that the professional captains, the standard textbook, and the authors of the rule
all agree on its meaning, and yet Neal stands alone in his opinion?



Hey, Jeff, I happen to be a professional captain. And, I just happen
to be a greater authority on the English language than some smuck
named Farwell. Does this Farwell even have a lowly bachelor's
degree? I doubt it.

'Shall not impede' means what it says. It is as much a part of the
English language as apple pie. Nobody attempts to come up with
his own definition of 'apple pie' yet they presume to come up with
a definition of 'shall not impede' that is contrary to the dictionary
definition. Could it be that those who do so do so out of ignorance?

Yes, sir, it is very likely the case. Any time some Rube attempts to
force his own lame definitions which do not agree with dictionary
definitions upon certain words and terms it is because the Rube is
uneducated and ignorant. It casts whatever the Rube says in a
dubious light. That's a fact. Another fact is those who would give
any credit at all to said Rube are ignorant of the English language
just as is the Rube.